By Dave Holdt. We refer to Christ by various titles: the Messiah, the Lamb of God, Son of the Father, etc. Tagged: Son of Man, Gospels, Ezekiel, Daniel, Jesus. The “son of man” here was early interpreted of the Messias, in the Book of Henoch, where the expression is used almost as a Messianic title, though there is a good deal in Drummond’s argument that even here it was not used as a Messianic title notwithstanding the fact that it was understood of the Messias. He is born of a virgin. This fact has to be significant. Jesus as the fulfillment of Daniel’s vision, as the one who receives and rules over the kingdom of God. Q. Son of Man, in contrast, focuses on the humanity of Christ. We have seen that the title ‘Messiah’ was apt to be understood in militaristic and political terms, contrary to Jesus’ mission. Why Jesus Made Use of the Title. Jesus’ own use of the term is often connected with statements about his “coming with the clouds of heaven,” so Daniel serves as the most promising immediate background. The Bible does not tell us definitively why Jesus claimed to be the Son of Man. And only when the time was right—mainly when he was on trial for his life, and they said, "Are you the Christ, the Son of the living God? When Jesus used the title He was assigning the Son of Man prophecy to Himself. On both occasions there is interaction between God the Father and his Son. This reflects the Gospels’ respective lengths more than anything else. But the shear volume of usage in Ezekiel suggests that we shouldn’t ignore that either, especially considering that Ezekiel and Daniel were near contemporaries, with Daniel being a bit younger and in all likelihood perfectly familiar with the fact that Ezekiel had been known as “son of man.” When Daniel saw “one like a son of man,” perhaps he meant “one like Ezekiel.” Worth considering. He was a son of man, that is, a human being. And yet the one that He chooses above all is "The Son of man".Why? It did not pass into normal Christian usage or worship. Just as his title Son of God points to Jesus' divinity, the title Son of Man indicates his … “Why did Jesus use the title ‘Son of Man’ so often and in comparison, relatively speaking, the title ‘Messiah’ so little? But I make a point of using every Narnia illustration I can. In other words, "Son of man" was used to say what Jesus did rather than what he was. It's instructive to see how Jesus uses the title Son of Man. He spoke to them only what he heard from the Father. … This may have originated with Schweitzer. In the Revelation also it appears twice: the son of man is standing in the midst of the lampstands, and is … I think the reason he did so is because, on the face of it, Son of Man is an ordinary phrase for "human being." (2) There is one occasion in Isaiah (56:2) and two in Jeremiah (50:40; 51:43) where the term doesn’t really appear to imply weakness particularly, but to simply be a euphemism for human. And he would make claims that were explicit in certain settings and implicit in others. If that thought and that faith don’t spur us to the kind of maturity and righteousness befitting kings, I don’t know what will. Tim’s Answer Thanks for your question. In the Synoptic Gospels, he uses Son of Man in three primary ways: Earthly Son of Man; Suffering Son of Man; Apocalyptic or Eschatological Son of Man; He begins his ministry by using Son of Man in a variety of ways. The only reason why the Gospels would record Jesus calling himself something that the church did not go on to call him is that he really called himself that. Other titles for Christ, such as Son of God, are overt in their focus on His deity. It is clear in this passage that the title Son of Man was used in reference to the coming Jewish Messiah. The suffering of Adoniram Judson was exceeded only by his spiritual fruit. Son of Man. It was Jesus' favorite self-designation. Jesus’ death was God’s condemnation of our … He did this because of the dual meaning: The title was used by the prophet Ezekiel to describe himself. “Son of man” is a fancy way of saying ‘human being’. The Purpose of Names. Of course, Psalm 8 itself clearly alludes to the original Adam when it sings of how the “son of man” is entrusted with dominion over creation. In this essay we seek to assess why Jesus uses the title He was alluding … In fact, Ezekiel is called “son of man” more frequently than Jesus is in all four gospels combined (93x for Ezekiel vs. 82x for Jesus). He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. He approached the Ancient One and was led into His presence. There are two other more specific uses of “son of man” in the Old Testament. Jesus may have used the title Son of Man as a secret name for the Messiah. Let’s explore this powerful name. Why is Jesus called "Son of Man"? He is the Second Person of the Trinity with all of the divine nature fully in him. Well, I don’t think that’s the point. Second, it doesn’t make much biblical sense to construe the contrast between “son of man” and “son of God” as equivalent to that between “human” and “divine.” This is because plenty of regular old humans (not to mention angels) are called “sons of God”: Adam, kings of Judah, Christians, the Sethites or fallen angels (take your pick) of Genesis 6, etc. The reference here is most likely to the king of Judah. John Piper is founder and teacher of desiringGod.org and chancellor of Bethlehem College & Seminary. He was subtle. God’s creation is good, and “son of man” in the Bible doesn’t seem to have anything to do with man as a sinner, just with man as man. I have always wondered about this. . Many sceptical scholars believe that Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man, because it is unlikely to have been an invention of the early Church. Jesus does not use the title to describe himself. The Bible describes him as the preexistent Son of God whom the Father sent into the world. The following is an edited transcript of the audio. So, why would he call himself that? "—did he say, "I am, and you will see the Son of Man coming with great power and glory." Ezekiel, too, was a speaker of parables (17:2). The second son who receives the inheritance in preference to the first son – like Isaac, like Jacob. On the one hand, saying he was the Son of Man would have been a very ordinary thing to say. But those with ears to hear could hear Daniel 7, in which he was claiming a very exalted role in the history of redemption. So here are some basic observations about how the title is used: (1) The title “son of man” appears several times in the Old Testament as a way of highlighting weakness. How do we reckon with the persistence of indwelling sin? After all, first, “son of man” is what Jesus called himself during his earthly ministry, during which time no one had trouble believing that he was human. In Ezekiel 8:6, the prophet saw abominations in the temple: Son of man, do you see what they are doing, the great abominations that the house of Israel are committing here, to drive me far from my sanctuary? This was especially true of the class (3) sayings. Is there something about the specific context of Jesus’ ministry that makes the title uniquely appropriate for that time period? He was a son of man, that is, a human being. In what seems a rather cumbersome self-reference, Jesus often calls himself “the son of man.” In my experience of popular preaching and teaching, a vague impression is often conveyed, if not explicitly stated, that “son of man” is a way of emphasizing Jesus’ humanity, highlighting the fact that Jesus is a real flesh and blood human. To be God the Son, the second person of the Trinity, is more than to be simply a son of God. That’s why I want you to notice this. So the 'Son of Man' is a title that was used exclusively by Jesus to describe Himself - the disciples never addressed Him by this term. All contributed content represents the views of the contributor and does not necessarily represent the views of KnowingScripture.com. In Job 16:21; 25:6; and 35:8 it appears to have that connotation, and also in Isaiah 51:12. The most ascribed explanation of Jesus’ use of the “Son of Man” title is that it refers to a vision presented to Daniel about who will come from heaven to reign over the earth. "Son of Man" has the double meaning of human being and, according to Daniel 7, exalted heavenly one. “Son of Man” is a title used almost entirely by Jesus himself to refer to himself. As a final word of application, it’s worth considering that those who are in Christ share in his inheritance and will share in Adam’s rule of creation with Jesus. He said things like, in Mark 10:45, "The Son of Man came not to be served but to serve and to give his life as a ransom for many." Let me give a common understanding and then a more sophisticated historical understanding. At His trial Jesus acknowledged that He indeed was the Son of Man - the one who would bring in God's everlasting … First, in Ezekiel it is used tons. Ezekiel even symbolically bore Israel’s punishment (4:4-8), which Jesus would do in reality. And in any case, the more commonly accepted background for the name “son of man” is in fact Daniel 7, to which we now turn . Jesus spoke in parables so that Israel in their rebellionwouldn’t understand him. This is an interesting title, and one that is used of Jesus over 80 times in the New Testament; but only 3 times is it used by someone other than Jesus. In fact, the term appears in the New Testament only 4 times outside of the Gospels and never in extra-biblical Christian writings during the … Hopefully this is a pointer and prod to further reflection. In the Revelation also it appears twice: the son of man is standing in the midst of the lampstands, and is seated on a cloud with a sickle in his hand. Son of Man actually had more significance in that context than Son of God To the Jewish mind, the term Son of God might be used to refer to any person without too much controversy, because they would agree that we are all created by God, and therefore could be called “sons” of God. That’s what it means for Jesus to be the son of man. He is the son of Adam in the fullest sense. Here is his commission: Son of man, I send you to the people of Israel, to nations of rebels, who have rebelled against me. The use of the term “Son of Man” emphasized Jesus’ true humanity. . They and their fathers have transgressed against me to this very day . His Humiliation, Rejection, Suffering, Death, and Resurrection. Play on Spotify The title Son of Man carries overtones of suffering, and Jesus used it regularly when he spoke of his suffering and death. So why did God take on a title that normally refers to human beings? Most people in the world have no experience of lasting joy in their lives. It was not and did not become a title in the normal sense—at least not on the lips of Jesus himself. Jesus did not become the Son of God at the moment of his earthly birth. And there's no offense there: who isn't a son of man? The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. [1] Of course, when Aslan says that being a son of Adam is cause for shame, he is referring to the inherited sin and corruption that Adam’s offspring carry, not to Adam as created. Was it hinted in the Old Testament? Like it’s use in Ezekiel, ‘son of man’ can simply mean, ‘human being.’ But of course, Jesus also was speaking to his identity as the Messiah. In the same way, we shouldn’t think that “son of man” is simply or primarily a way of speaking about Jesus’ humanity. Jesus used the title Son of Man to describe himself. Jesus often called himself the Son of Man as part of his interactions with people. In Daniel 7:13-14, he writes, “I saw someone like the son of man coming with the clouds of Heaven. The Son of Man can also be a term of glory. We understand the purpose, but why does Jesus refer to Himself as "the Son of man"? “Man”, on the other hand, expresses being a part of the human race, a member of humankind. Daniel 7 is one of the most important Old Testament stories for understanding what Jesus is all about, and it makes perfect sense why Jesus adopted the Son of Man title to describe himself. Daniel is then himself called “son of man” soon after (8:17). One other point before looking at the gospels. The title goes back to the Book of Daniel where the Son of Man would inherit the everlasting kingdom of God. (3) Moving on then, thirdly, there is one occasion in the Psalms where the title is used in a context that implies not weakness but strength: Psalm 80:16-18 says this: They have burned it with fire; they have cut it down;   may they perish at the rebuke of your face!But let your hand be on the man of your right hand,the son of man whom you have made strong for yourself!Then we shall not turn back from you;give us life, and we will call upon your name! For 33 years, he served as pastor of Bethlehem Baptist Church, Minneapolis, Minnesota. He was conceived of the Holy Spirit in the virgin Mary. as a prophecy of a future person's arrival. The conclusion that this title expresses, not the personal qualities of Jesus as a man, but His functions as Messiah, may be disappointing; but there is a way of recovering what seems to have been lost; because we must now inquire for what reasons He made use of this term. He always has, and he always will. Why did Jesus call Himself 'The Son of Man'? He had a human father but he didn't have sex with this virgin until Jesus was conceived. If you take the time to skim the lists of references in each of the gospels above, something that will strike you is that there doesn’t seem to be any particular association between the title “son of man” and any one aspect of Jesus’ ministry or teaching. Question 148: Why did Jesus favour the title, "THE SON OF MAN"? Stephen did see “the son of man” standing at the right hand of God. The more sophisticated and important historical insight is that the term "Son of Man" doesn't merely align him with humanity. Jesus is a son of “man” in addition to the son of “God,” in a kind of proto two-nature Christology. But that’s it. Firstly, in order to understand why Jesus is called the Son of Man, let us explore the purpose of a name. Jesus was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah. It did not pass into normal Christian usage or worship. Daniel’s son of man is one who is fulfilling the commission to Adam to “rule” as the image of God. They include: 1) He would come on the clouds of heaven, 2) He has authority over all people and nations, 3) He receives worship, 4) He is eternal, and 5) His kingdom will never be destroyed. Lewis even uses that terminology in his Narnia books. Stephen did see “the son of man” standing at the right hand of God. Why did Jesus claim to be the Son of Man? What Does "Son of Man" Mean"? Certain characteristics of this Son of Man are made clear in these verses. The other 82 times He uses it to speak of Himself. The Bible wants to emphasize that he is fully human. Through imprisonment, loss, and torture, God built his church in Myanmar. Biblical scholars have differing views as to why Jesus would have made this statement. Soon after Ezekiel, Daniel has a vision of “one like a son of man” receiving a kingdom, “that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve him.” He comes with the clouds of heaven, as Jesus repeatedly said he himself would do (and this is a “coming” into heavenly glory and authority, not a coming down to earth as is so often assumed by end-times enthusiasts). After the gospels, it disappears completely. To recover meaningful accountability in the church, we need to recover the lost spiritual art of conversation. Jesus, the Son of Man and the greater Ezekiel, was like Ezekiel and the other prophets sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. The common understanding is that "Son of God" implies his deity—which it does—and that "Son of Man" implies his humanity, which it does too. He used the title at Jesus’ baptism and his transfiguration. . . He is author of. It’s just what he calls himself. As noted above, it’s possible that Daniel alludes here to Ezekiel. Jesus possesses divine authority—authority over the Sabbath, authority to heal, and even authority to forgive sin—for he is Son of Man. Similarly, in Numbers 23:19, the God who does not lie or repent is contrasted with the “son of man” who does both. Of all the titles commonly used of Jesus in the New Testament, `Son of man' was the one most used by Jesus himself. "Be Fruitful and Multiply": A Biblical Theology of Offspring. Were men like the apostle Peter wrong to question the inclusion of the Gentiles in God’s people? Ezekiel announced the destruction of Jerusalem (9:1-11), as did Jesus in the Olivet Discourse. 1. So I hope that helps. We’re on a mission to change that. It is used 84 times in the Gospels and is used almost solely by Jesus Himself. Ironically, Jesus also used the title “Son of Man” in connection with his rejection, sufferings, death, and resurrection: It’s his way of saying “I” or “me”—whether he is talking about his miracles, preaching, his impending death, kingdom-bringing power, authority to forgive sin, or his lordship of the Sabbath. And he is the Son of God, in that he has always existed as the Eternally Begotten One who comes forth from the Father forever. So he confessed his open deity right at the point where he knew he would be crucified for it. It appears 29x in Matthew, 14x in Mark, 26x in Luke, and 13x in John. These three categories of use leave us with the understanding that “son of man” as a generic title can highlight the frailty of mankind in contrast with God, but it can also be used to conjure up the recollection of humanity’s high status as the image of God and ruler of creation. 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